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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n), Y" x! Q& [) w! [1 y2 T
) G) G3 v2 w0 z& Y% D8 q6 e4 rProof:
0 V$ A, M0 a: s" ]Let n >1 be an integer 3 @; ^/ Q& y: w+ ]/ y0 w9 B2 T
Basis: (n=2)' a# K: W! l* P
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 33 t3 m' o2 Q4 F0 ~4 I; Z& G
% Q* ]* q: C- W% }Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that0 D9 p, P/ P g
K^3 – K can by divided by 3." F; V- v/ e* d: }+ ?, s& B
0 p$ Z- t+ Q9 p6 b/ e" ?Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 34 G% j8 m% c; j6 m8 @5 t
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem D. D. z3 [$ S2 d: p! p, ]
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1): H% i- t# k* z
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K2 X* e6 A- o; ]" c/ @% m
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
. u) E2 R! h5 d! s9 ~ = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
( Z8 C- e6 Q2 ?% l5 f3 d$ Zby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
: @3 g) r# O$ \. uSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)' ^& b, j1 h3 n' z* w2 Q' }# P
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)1 O' Z/ \3 }3 d% e1 d2 m0 ~6 p+ _
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
# [# c" @" E! D; X3 f/ W/ N" U. j: `, m! _- z; q/ h' c/ e; Y
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.' `) ^0 z; C, }! b
5 o2 P! r5 e: u. e" e! V& ^[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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