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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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- V# k/ N2 v' ^$ f% y: ?Proof: 1 j+ i, g }: I2 t8 x) H
Let n >1 be an integer
/ ]5 L# U* {* x# U/ x+ l8 KBasis: (n=2)! q6 \0 k) h6 {: B" y0 V* A
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that+ T4 a% }5 O. C7 e4 j- I8 _0 T3 U8 J0 P
K^3 – K can by divided by 3./ ]$ P/ Q# z" q. U- X
( K% }! Z# p5 ?Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3. }$ X5 X8 N+ W$ E/ F
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
6 E A+ L, q {, i$ X- ^# [$ _Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
9 b8 ]* o2 T" l. x; ] = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K, Z6 S9 h# j# G+ I) I6 k1 F
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)- O' I9 v; `7 T$ h; w! k
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' N7 U) Z: Q6 ?4 g4 y, Qby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
) @) V) `# p# p2 o/ c5 w1 C. YSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ n" k! D5 ~, M" u3 l% H) ?
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)3 y( S- p0 A" U' B" n
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3* F* o2 n( p* P# L7 O: d. x
9 Q) t6 h+ l* c. OConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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