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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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9 r+ D3 l' l, U1 y; RProof:
& f" D# M. }. }$ a1 HLet n >1 be an integer 2 y7 Z( Y- J9 @, a
Basis: (n=2)
3 \' d/ T7 q0 `3 W- i/ H2 H; l# k 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that' D5 \' z: z6 v6 @: Y. b
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.# w( I. w: H3 h: _& Z) c" ?+ k/ V) l ]! K
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
2 g- G- G6 v C% Y1 Ysince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem' x; L! _ _# V
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
# f7 @7 E* C d! ?1 ^' D = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K5 ^8 c$ F `- L- x
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
5 a! r! [! V U9 b = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
, ]/ l0 j# r% z' G* y/ Sby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
' K& m; z2 d9 i% U# u& \So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; W) F1 c7 t7 X = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
* D% F; p* r. \ = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 31 X0 {3 @+ A* M7 S5 O
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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! O9 Z" Q4 U) Y[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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